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Projection of a vector

  1. Oct 3, 2012 #1
    Is the following statement true? My intuition tells me it is true, but I have been trying to prove it, without much success:

    [tex] (proj_{v}u ) \cdot (u - proj_{v}u) = 0 [/tex]

    It makes complete since if you draw it out in R2, but I am trying to prove it in Rn.

    Any ideas?

    BiP
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 4, 2012 #2

    micromass

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    The formula is true. To prove it, can you find another way to write [itex]proj_vu[/itex]?? Try to write it with dot products.
     
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