- #1

Mikaelochi

- 40

- 1

- TL;DR Summary
- Another problem from a topology course I took and never really got

So, this problem I sort of get conceptually but I don't know how I can possibly rewrite (idX)∗ : π1(X) → π1(X). Does this involve group theory? It's supposed to be simple but I honestly I don't see how. Again, any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks.