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## Homework Statement

I am required to prove/disprove the theorem:

If a_1 is congruent to b_1 (mod n) and a_2 is congruent to b_2 (mod n), then (a_1)^(a_2) is congruent to (b_1)^(b_2) (mod n).

## Homework Equations

a_1 is congruent to b_1(mod n) can also be expressed as b_1=a_1+q*n where q is an integer.

## The Attempt at a Solution

"There exist q, q' which are elements of Z such that (b_1)^(b_2) = (a_1+q*n)^(a_2+q'*n).

We can express (a_1+q*n)^(a_2+q'*n) as (a_1+q*n)^(a_2) + (a_1+q*n)^(q'*n)."

I don't think I am heading in the right direction. Is mathematical induction needed to prove this theorem?

Thanks in advance to anyone who can provide some insight.