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Proof of a probability inequality
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[QUOTE="MarneMath, post: 4670134, member: 438213"] If you want to use the hint there are a few ways you can do this. I'm not entire convinced by your method though. I would prefer to see the disjoint sets written with n terms (eg B_1 = A_1 and B_n =A_n\ Union of A_i from i = 1 to n.) Then mention the pairwise disjoint collection. From there it should more or less follow from the additive axiom. As a side note, if you know measure theory, then the inequality naturally follows since the measure is sigma sub-additive. I only mention this since the problem mentions it is a measure. [/QUOTE]
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Proof of a probability inequality
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