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Proof of de morgan law

  1. Sep 21, 2008 #1
    Hi ,my lecturer ask me to prove ~(p^q) = ~pv~q i.e ~(p^q) is equivalent to ~pv~q,without using the true tables.

    thanks for your help
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 21, 2008 #2


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    What have you tried? You should have some basic instructions for working with statements like this.
  4. Sep 21, 2008 #3
    the usual in statement calculus. i can not get started
  5. Sep 22, 2008 #4
  6. Sep 22, 2008 #5
    thanks,but where rules 7 and 13 are coming from what are they called???

    also my version of de morgan is not proved there, probably thats why the lecturer ask me to prove that version because he knew the one already in google
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