- #1

- 86

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1+3+5...2n-1=n^2

Suppose that the formula is known to be true for n=1, and suppose that as a result of assuming that it is true for n=k, where k is an arbitrary positive integer, we can prove that it is also true for n=k+1.

Then the formula is true for all k.

Why does this addition of 1 make it true for all k?