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Using the Mean Value Theorem, prove that the derivative of the indefinite integral [itex] \int f(x) \ dx [/itex] is [itex] f(x) [/itex]

So do I just use the fact that [itex] \int^b_a f(x) \ dx = f(\xi)(b-a) [/itex]?

Thanks

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# Homework Help: Proof Using Mean Value Theorem

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