Could you please put the conclusion ("The spin-statistics theorem says that in local quantum field theory in two dimensions an anticommuting field must have half-integral Lorentz quantum numbers.") of the following quote in simpler terms if possible,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

"Properly speaking, in 1+1 dimensions there is no such thing as spin, but there is a two-dimensional Lorentz group (or local Lorentz group, in the case of a generally covariant theory), and it makes sense to ask how a two-dimensional field transforms under this group. The spin-statistics theorem says that in local quantum field theory in two dimensions an anticommuting field must have half-integral Lorentz quantum numbers."

Quote from Google book search "is there a spin statistics theorem in 1 + 1 spacetime dimensions"

Bottom of page 187, https://books.google.com/books?id=_18hAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA187&dq=string theory: volume 1, introduction&hl=en&sa=X&ei=dr-yVOTQO8rasAStkIGQBg&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=string theory: volume 1, introduction&f=false

Also does this answer my early question about what the 2 component spinor solutions of the Dirac equation in 1+1 dimensions represent?

Thanks for any help!

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# "Properly speaking, in 1+1 dim. no such thing as spin, but"

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