Proving the Oddness of sin(mx)cos(nx) using Integration

  • Thread starter tainted
  • Start date
In summary: The integral of an odd function over a symmetric interval is always zero, right? So we just need to prove that the integrand is odd. And that's easy, since sin is odd and cos is even. So when you multiply them together, you still get an odd function. Thus, the integral is always zero.
  • #1
tainted
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Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\
(m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)
[/itex]

Homework Equations


[itex]
\sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)]
[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx
[/itex]
Edit
[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx
[/itex]
the function, sine of any constant times x, is an odd function, therefore when it is integraded from -a to a, its value is 0.
Therefore, we get
[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)\,dx + \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m+n)x)\,dx = 0 + 0 = 0
[/itex]
Would that be sufficient in the proof?

Thanks guys!
 
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  • #2
Just do the integrals, taking care to treat the case where m=n separately. You know how to integrate sin kx, right?
 
  • #3
tainted said:

Homework Statement


Prove the following formula
[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx = 0\\
(m, n = \pm 1, \pm 2, \pm 3, ...)
[/itex]

Homework Equations


[itex]
\sin(A)\cos(B) = \frac{1}{2}[\sin(A-B)+\sin(A+B)]
[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution



[itex]
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx)\cos(nx)\,dx\\
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin(mx-nx)+\sin(mx+nx)\,dx\\
\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \sin((m-n)x)+\sin((m+n)x)\,dx\\
[/itex]

Now I would imagine that there is some identity to either evaluate these or to prove that these are odd.
!

What do you know about odd and even functions and integrals? Are sines and cosines odd or even? Can you draw any conclusions about those integrands?
 
  • #4
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?
 
  • #5
tainted said:
Ok well of course -sin(x) = sin(-x) but does that hold true when there is a constant in front of x?

x can be anything in that identity, can't it? Like, for example, cx.
 
  • #6
a(-x)= -(ax).
 
  • #7
Ok thanks guys! I think I got it, could you tell me if my attempted answer to the question appears to be sufficient?
 
  • #8
Yeah, that's sufficient. But can you see how could have done the whole problem in one step?
 

1. What does "Prove sin(mx)cosn(nx) is odd" mean?

This statement is asking for a mathematical proof that the function sin(mx)cosn(nx) is an odd function, meaning that it satisfies the property of f(-x) = -f(x).

2. How do you prove that sin(mx)cosn(nx) is odd?

To prove this, we need to show that sin(mx)cosn(nx) = -sin(mx)cosn(nx) for all values of x. This can be done using basic trigonometric identities and properties.

3. Can you give an example of an odd function?

One example of an odd function is f(x) = x^3, where f(-x) = -(-x)^3 = -x^3 = -f(x). In this case, the function is symmetric about the origin.

4. Why is proving that sin(mx)cosn(nx) is odd important?

Proving that a function is odd is important because it helps us understand the symmetry and behavior of the function. It also allows us to simplify calculations and solve problems more easily.

5. What are some applications of proving that sin(mx)cosn(nx) is odd?

The concept of odd functions and proving their properties is used in various fields of science and engineering, such as in signal processing, physics, and electrical engineering. It is also important in understanding the behavior of periodic functions and in solving differential equations.

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