- #1
JasonHathaway
- 115
- 0
Homework Statement
Prove that, by putting x=0 x=∏ in [itex]x^{2}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+4 \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^{2}} cos(nx) cos(n \pi)[/itex], that [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{8}= \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n+1)^{2}}[/itex]
The Attempt at a Solution
This a solved problem, I've understood the first two parts, and how the even elements of the series were eliminated, but what about [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{6} [/itex] and [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{8} [/itex]?
Last edited: