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## Homework Statement

Prove that, by putting x=0 x=∏ in [itex]x^{2}=\frac{\pi^{2}}{3}+4 \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^{2}} cos(nx) cos(n \pi)[/itex], that [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{8}= \sum\limits_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{(2n+1)^{2}}[/itex]

## The Attempt at a Solution

This a solved problem, I've understood the first two parts, and how the even elements of the series were eliminated, but what about [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{6} [/itex] and [itex]\frac{\pi^{2}}{8} [/itex]?

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