How can we use induction to prove that (xy)^{3} = y^{3}x^{3} for all x,y in G?

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In summary, if G is a group such that (xy)^{3} = x^{3}y^{3} for all x,y in G, and if 3 does not divide the order of G, then G is abelian. This can be proven using strong induction and the fact that every element in G has order 3k+1 or 3k+2 for some integer k by Lagrange's theorem. By manipulating the terms, it can be shown that (xy)^{3k} = x^{3k}y^{3k} for all k, which leads to the conclusion that G is abelian.
  • #1
matticus
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if G is a group such that (xy)[tex]^{3}[/tex] = x[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex] for all x,y in G, and if 3 does not divide the order of G, then G is abelian.

I proved an earlier result that said if there exists an n such that
(xy)[tex]^{n}[/tex] = x[tex]^{n}[/tex]y[tex]^{n}[/tex]
(xy)[tex]^{n+1}[/tex] = x[tex]^{n+1}[/tex]y[tex]^{n+1}[/tex]
(xy)[tex]^{n+2}[/tex] = x[tex]^{n+2}[/tex]y[tex]^{n+2}[/tex] for all x,y in G, then G is abelian.
I think I'm supposed to use that but I can't quite get it. If I let n = 3, then by hypothesis 3 works and with some symbol manipulation 4 works for all groups as long as 3 does. So I'm thinking that if the hypothesis holds, I should be able to show that
(xy)[tex]^{5}[/tex]= x[tex]^{5}[/tex]y[tex]^{5}[/tex]. I went through proving it for different orders of G, but no patterns arose. any suggestions?
 
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  • #2
I'm assuming G is finite since you speak of divisibility of |G|.

I haven't shown it using your earlier result, but I did it as follows:
First show, using strong induction, that:
[tex](xy)^{3k} = (yx)^{3k}= x^{3k}y^{3k}[/tex]
[tex](xy)^{3k+1} = x^{3k+1}y^{3k+1}[/tex]
[tex](xy)^{3k+2} = y^{3k+2}x^{3k+2}[/tex]
Next note that every element has order 3k+1 or 3k+2 for some integer k by Lagrange's theorem and the assumption that 3 does not divide |G|. Assume x has order 3k+1, then:
[tex]y^{3k+1} = x^{3k+1}y^{3k+1} = (xy)^{3k+1} = xy(xy)^{3k} = xyx^{3k}y^{3k}[/tex]
From which you can show xy = yx by cancelling the rightmost y's and right-multiplying by x. Do similar manipulations for |x|=3k+2 starting with the last identity.
 
  • #3
rasmhop said:
I'm assuming G is finite since you speak of divisibility of |G|.

I haven't shown it using your earlier result, but I did it as follows:
First show, using strong induction, that:
[tex](xy)^{3k} = (yx)^{3k}= x^{3k}y^{3k}[/tex]

can you be more clear on how you got this?
the inductive step as far as a i can see would be:
suppose (xy)[tex]^{3k}[/tex] = x[tex]^{3k}[/tex]y[tex]^{3k}[/tex].
then (xy)[tex]^{3(k+1)}[/tex]= x[tex]^{3k}[/tex]y[tex]^{3k}[/tex]x[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex]. but then what...

edit: wait i think i got it
x[tex]^{3k}[/tex]y[tex]^{3k}[/tex]x[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex] = x[tex]^{3k}[/tex](y[tex]^{k}[/tex]x)[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex]=x[tex]^{3k}[/tex]x[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3k}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex]=x[tex]^{3(k+1)}[/tex]y[tex]^{3(k+1)}[/tex]

just so it's clear to anyone else reading (xy)[tex]^{3}[/tex] = x[tex]^{3}[/tex]y[tex]^{3}[/tex] for all x,y in G implies (xy)[tex]^{3}[/tex] = y[tex]^{3}[/tex]x[tex]^{3}[/tex] for all x,y in G

also, the reason for strong induction is because for the 3k + 2 induction the base case has to start at k = 2 right?
 
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1. How do you prove a group is abelian?

To prove a group is abelian, you must show that the group's operation is commutative. In other words, the order in which you combine the elements does not affect the result. You can do this by showing that for any two elements a and b in the group, a*b = b*a.

2. What is the easiest way to prove a group is abelian?

The easiest way to prove a group is abelian is to show that the group's multiplication table is symmetric. This means that the elements on the left side of the table are the same as the elements on the top, indicating that the operation is commutative.

3. Can a non-abelian group be transformed into an abelian group?

Yes, a non-abelian group can be transformed into an abelian group by applying the commutator, which is defined as [a, b] = a*b*a^-1*b^-1. This process is known as "abelianization" and it results in an abelian group.

4. Are all cyclic groups abelian?

Yes, all cyclic groups are abelian. This is because the operation in a cyclic group is defined as repeated addition, which is commutative.

5. Can a group with a non-commutative operation be abelian?

No, a group with a non-commutative operation cannot be abelian. For a group to be abelian, its operation must be commutative, which means that the order of the elements does not affect the result. If the operation is non-commutative, the group cannot be abelian.

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