How to Prove an Inverse Function Using Equating Square Roots?

In summary, the conversation is discussing how to prove that a function has an inverse by showing that it is one-to-one. The basis of equating the two square roots is that an output can only have one input. Another way to show it is one-to-one is by graphing and finding a mathematical expression for the specific feature of the graph. The conversation also mentions that the statement "an output can have only one input" is assumed, not proven. To prove that a function has an inverse, it is necessary to show that if the result of the function is the same, then the inputs were the same.
  • #1
#neutrino
51
2
if
upload_2016-1-15_8-59-51.png
then to prove an inverse of this exists the following has been done to show that it is one to one

upload_2016-1-15_8-59-8.png


what is the basis of equating the 2 square roots ?
 
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  • #2
Can you think of another way to show it is 1-1?
 
  • #3
#neutrino said:
if
View attachment 94299 then to prove an inverse of this exists the following has been done to show that it is one to one

View attachment 94298

what is the basis of equating the 2 square roots ?
What is the definition of a function being one-to-one?
 
  • #4
Mark44 said:
What is the definition of a function being one-to-one?
an output can have only one input ,but what i don't understand is the basis of the expression
upload_2016-1-15_15-42-34.png
 
  • #5
Simon Bridge said:
Can you think of another way to show it is 1-1?
yes i can reach the conclusion if we draw a graph but I'm confused about how to arrive at the conclusion (one to one ) using this data
 
  • #6
#neutrino said:
yes i can reach the conclusion if we draw a graph but I'm confused about how to arrive at the conclusion (one to one ) using this data
If you graph it, can you think of a specific feature of the graph that you could phrase mathematically?
 
  • #7
#neutrino said:
an output can have only one input ,but what i don't understand is the basis of the expressionView attachment 94307
That is exactly what you said above: "an output can have only one input". If x and y are the "inputs" for the "outputs", f(x) and f(y), and they are the same, f(x)= f(y), so they are the same output, the inputs must be the same: x= y. Showing that "if f(x)= f(y) then x= y" is exactly the same as showing "an output can have only one input".
 
  • #8
#neutrino said:
an output can have only one input ,but what i don't understand is the basis of the expressionView attachment 94307
It is the "If" part of an "if-then" statement. It is not proven, it is assumed. So there is no need for a "basis" for the statement.
If (x/(x+1))0.5 = (y/(y+1))0.5
then x=y.

This is all that you need to prove to show that the function has an inverse.
 
  • #9
HallsofIvy said:
That is exactly what you said above: "an output can have only one input". If x and y are the "inputs" for the "outputs", f(x) and f(y), and they are the same, f(x)= f(y), so they are the same output, the inputs must be the same: x= y. Showing that "if f(x)= f(y) then x= y" is exactly the same as showing "an output can have only one input".
FactChecker said:
It is the "If" part of an "if-then" statement. It is not proven, it is assumed. So there is no need for a "basis" for the statement.
If (x/(x+1))0.5 = (y/(y+1))0.5
then x=y.

This is all that you need to prove to show that the function has an inverse.

so why have you proved an input equals an input ? when what we should prove is that for two particular inputs the OUTPUT will be the same only if those two inputs are equal.
 
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  • #10
That is how you prove it. Prove that if the result of the function is the same, then the inputs were the same. That what "or two particular inputs the OUTPUT will be the same only if those two inputs are equal." means. So your question is more about how to phrase the logic rather than about function inverses. This might be a good, simple example of using truth tables to see that the logic is correct.
 

1. What is an inverse function?

An inverse function is a function that "undoes" the action of another function. In other words, if a function maps an input x to an output y, the inverse function will take y as an input and return x as an output.

2. How do you prove that a function is its own inverse?

To prove that a function is its own inverse, you need to show that when you apply the function to its own inverse, you get back the original input. In other words, if the function is f(x), you need to show that f(f(x)) = x for all possible inputs x.

3. Can any function have an inverse?

No, not all functions have an inverse. In order for a function to have an inverse, it must be one-to-one, meaning that each input has a unique output. Also, the function must be onto, meaning that every possible output has at least one corresponding input. If a function fails to meet these criteria, it will not have an inverse.

4. How can you prove that a function is one-to-one and onto?

To prove that a function is one-to-one, you can use the horizontal line test. This test involves drawing horizontal lines across the graph of the function and checking if each line intersects the graph at only one point. To prove that a function is onto, you can use the vertical line test. This test involves drawing vertical lines across the graph of the function and checking if each line intersects the graph at least once.

5. Is the inverse of a one-to-one and onto function always unique?

Yes, the inverse of a one-to-one and onto function is always unique. This is because for every input, there is only one corresponding output, and for every output, there is only one corresponding input. Therefore, the inverse function will also be one-to-one and onto, and there can only be one such function.

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