I'm a little stuck in my proof here. As I was trying to prove that the limit of a binomial distribution is the poisson distribution, I encountered this:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]

\lim_{n\to +\infty} \frac{n!}{(n-x)! (n-k)^x}

[/tex]

where x and k are arbitrary constants.

The books say that this approaches 1, but shows no formal proof. How are we sure that this approaches 1 as n gets larger? In short, what's the formal proof?

Thanx for any help

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# Homework Help: Proving this Limit

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