Why is it that nonrelativistic quantum theory (NRQT) does not have PCT, whereas QFT does? How would you characterize the collapse of the wave function in terms of PCT? What is its PCT transform? How does QFT address EPR? Many physicists universally accept the Copenhagen interpretation and move on as with renormalization. Those who were discontent with renormalization, acknowledge it, and those like Dirac and Feynman made attempts to tackle the issue. Dirac disregard the notion of the point charge and attribute structure to the electron in handling radiation reaction. He was not successful but made some interesting remarks; he tried to resurrect the notion of the aether arguing how it was not incompatible with relativity when one considers quantum indeterminancy, the other involved monopoles and emphasized the use of strings.