I am trying to prove that(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex] \frac{d\langle p \rangle}{dt} = \langle -\frac{\partial V}{\partial x} \rangle [/tex]

I am done if I can just prove that

[tex] \left[ \Psi^*\frac{\partial^2 \Psi}{\partial x^2} \right]_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 0 [/tex]

[tex] \left[ \frac{\partial \Psi}{\partial x} \frac{\partial \Psi^*}{\partial x} \right]_{-\infty}^{\infty} = 0 [/tex]

My suggestion is that since [tex]\Psi[/tex] is a wavefunction, it is normalizable and must approach 0 as [tex]x \rightarrow \pm\infty[/tex], and so must its derivatives. I don't know if this argument holds?

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# Qm problem II

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