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[itex] x^2+1 [/itex] and then do a trick similar to Euclids proof of the infinite amount of primes

and assume their are only finitely many of them, But this probably wont work.

How else could we try to do this.

- Thread starter cragar
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- #1

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[itex] x^2+1 [/itex] and then do a trick similar to Euclids proof of the infinite amount of primes

and assume their are only finitely many of them, But this probably wont work.

How else could we try to do this.

- #2

pwsnafu

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What does this statement mean? How does a quadratic polynomial "produce" a prime?My teacher said that, No one knows of any quadratic polynomial that produces an infinite amount of primes.

- #3

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2^2+1=5 thats what I mean, are values for x are the naturals

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He's talking about this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bunyakovsky_conjecture

- #6

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will always produce odd numbers and cant be factored so thats a good start.

and the polynomial [itex] x^2+x+1[/itex] produced the same primes as

[itex] x^2-x+1[/itex] Maybe we could find a set of polynomials that covered a large portion of the odd numbers and then we would know at least one of these produced an

infinite amount of primes.

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