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Can the phenomenon of quantum tunneling be explained? Any theory that can account for it? Or is it just empirical? Would someone kindly answer my questions?
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Are you sure? really sure?MalleusScientiarum said:In fact, if you have an INFINITE potential of finite length separating two areas ... there is a nonzero chance that the particle will pop through that potential and end up on the other side.
For an infinite potential barrier of finite width, the transmission coefficient is zero. (However if the infinite barrier is infinitely narrow--that is, a delta-function potential--that's a different story.)MalleusScientiarum said:In fact, if you have an INFINITE potential of finite length separating two areas (experimentally this would be approximated by, for example, an enormous electric field that is confined spacially), there is a nonzero chance that the particle will pop through that potential and end up on the other side.
Absolutely.... but tunneling is perfectly accounted for in conventional quantum mechanics.