Quantum Field Theory: Understanding Path Integrals and Limit Trick

In summary: I now get the first bit.However, I have in my notes that these time evolution operators are given by Dyson's formula:U(t,t_0)= Te^{-i \int_{t_0}^t \hat{H}(t') dt'}Are these equivalent?Dyson's formula is shown to be equivalent to (4.17) in the discussion following that formula.Dyson's formula is shown to be equivalent to (4.17) in the discussion following that formula.
  • #36
fzero said:
You haven't quite used the chain rule, since you didn't include the term coming from the derivative of

[tex]e^{i S[\phi] + i \int d^d x J(x) \phi(x)},[/tex]

That's actually the most important part.


So, despite having worked all this out for the more copmlicated cases where we have path integrals, I am stumped for the finite dimensional question below

if [itex]Z[V] = \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} - V( \vec{x} )}[/itex]
where [itex]V(0)=0[/itex] and if [itex]V_{i_1 \dots i_n} = \partial_i_1 \dots \partial_i_n V( \vec{x} )_{ \vec{x}=0}[/itex] with [itex]V_i=V_{ij}=0[/itex], use the result
[itex]G( \frac{\partial}{\partial b}) F(b)= F( \frac{\partial}{\partial u}) G(u) e^{ub}|_{u=0}[/itex]
to show that
[itex]\frac{Z[V]}{Z[0]}= e^{\frac{1}{2} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}} \cdot A^{-1} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}}} e^{-V( \vec{x})}|_{\vec{x}=0}[/itex]

I can't figure out what to take as F and what to take as G or why?
 
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  • #37
latentcorpse said:
So, despite having worked all this out for the more copmlicated cases where we have path integrals, I am stumped for the finite dimensional question below

if [itex]Z[V] = \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} - V( \vec{x} )}[/itex]
where [itex]V(0)=0[/itex] and if [itex]V_{i_1 \dots i_n} = \partial_i_1 \dots \partial_i_n V( \vec{x} )_{ \vec{x}=0}[/itex] with [itex]V_i=V_{ij}=0[/itex], use the result
[itex]G( \frac{\partial}{\partial b}) F(b)= F( \frac{\partial}{\partial u}) G(u) e^{ub}|_{u=0}[/itex]
to show that
[itex]\frac{Z[V]}{Z[0]}= e^{\frac{1}{2} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}} \cdot A^{-1} \frac{\partial}{\partial \vec{x}}} e^{-V( \vec{x})}|_{\vec{x}=0}[/itex]

I can't figure out what to take as F and what to take as G or why?

As a preliminary result, you'll want to show that

[tex] \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} } \left(x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \right) \propto \left. \left( \frac{\partial^{n_1}}{\partial j_1^{n_1}} \cdots \frac{\partial^{n_N}}{\partial j_N^{n_N}} \right) e^{\frac{1}{2} \vec{j} \cdot A^{-1} \vec{j} } \right|_{\vec{j}=0}.[/tex]

You do this by coupling sources [tex]\vec{j}[/tex] to [tex]\vec{x}[/tex] as in the scalar field theory a few posts back. As a result, we can write

[tex]\frac{Z[V]}{Z[0]} =\left. e^{V(\partial/\partial \vec{j})} e^{\frac{1}{2} \vec{j} \cdot A^{-1} \vec{j} }\right|_{\vec{j}=0}.[/tex]

You're meant to use that change of variables result to simplify this expression, but I haven't worked out the details and probably missed something subtle above to make sure things work cleanly.
 
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  • #38
fzero said:
As a preliminary result, you'll want to show that

[tex] \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} } \left(x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \right) \propto \left( \frac{\partial^{n_1}}{\partial j_1^{n_1}} \cdots \frac{\partial^{n_N}}{\partial j_N^{n_N}} \right) e^{\frac{1}{2} \vec{j} \cdot A^{-1} \vec{j} }.[/tex]

You do this by coupling sources [tex]\vec{j}[/tex] to [tex]\vec{x}[/tex] as in the scalar field theory a few posts back. As a result, we can write

[tex]\frac{Z[V]}{Z[0]} = e^{V(\partial/\partial \vec{j})} e^{\frac{1}{2} \vec{j} \cdot A^{-1} \vec{j} }.[/tex]

You're meant to use that change of variables result to simplify this expression, but I haven't worked out the details and probably missed something subtle above to make sure things work cleanly.

This is annoying me because I can see what you want me to do, I just don't know how to do it!

So when I couple a source won't I get

[itex]Z[J]= \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} - V(x) + \vec{j} \cdot \vec{x}}[/itex]
but now I have this [itex]Z[J][/itex] floating about and I only want to be working with [itex]Z[V][/itex] and [itex]Z[0][/itex]
 
  • #39
There's no need to couple a source inside [tex]Z[V][/tex]. The connection between the formulas I wrote is entirely made by expanding [tex]e^{-V(\vec{x})}[/tex] as a power series and recognizing the terms inside that power series as things that can be computed from [tex]Z[V=0,j][/tex].
 
  • #40
fzero said:
There's no need to couple a source inside [tex]Z[V][/tex]. The connection between the formulas I wrote is entirely made by expanding [tex]e^{-V(\vec{x})}[/tex] as a power series and recognizing the terms inside that power series as things that can be computed from [tex]Z[V=0,j][/tex].

So you mean

[itex]Z[V, \vec{j} = e^{\vec{j} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^N x e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} - V( \vec{x} )}[/itex]
That's coupled the source outside of [itex]Z[V][/itex] right?
 
  • #41
latentcorpse said:
So you mean

[itex]Z[V, \vec{j} = e^{\vec{j} \cdot \vec{x}} \int d^N x e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} - V( \vec{x} )}[/itex]
That's coupled the source outside of [itex]Z[V][/itex] right?

No that doesn't make any sense because the LHS is independent of [tex]\vec{x}[/tex]. What I means is that

[tex]\frac{1}{Z[0]} \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} } \left(x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \right) = \langle x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \rangle[/tex]

and that [tex]Z[V][/tex] can be expressed as a linear combination of these correlators.
 
  • #42
fzero said:
No that doesn't make any sense because the LHS is independent of [tex]\vec{x}[/tex]. What I means is that

[tex]\frac{1}{Z[0]} \int d^Nx e^{-\frac{1}{2} \vec{x} \cdot A \vec{x} } \left(x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \right) = \langle x_1^{n_1}\cdots x_N^{n_N} \rangle[/tex]

and that [tex]Z[V][/tex] can be expressed as a linear combination of these correlators.

but that doesn't have any j's in it?

I might leave this for a few hours and hopefully when I come back to it I won't be going round in circles!
 
  • #43
latentcorpse said:
but that doesn't have any j's in it?

I might leave this for a few hours and hopefully when I come back to it I won't be going round in circles!

You should spend some time trying to make sense of the formulas in post #37. I corrected them to show that we're meant to set [tex]\vec{j}=0[/tex] after taking derivatives. Hopefully that clears up some confusion.

I've left out a few steps on purpose for you to fill in, since you've seen the necessary manipulations already. It's not really going to improve your understanding if I tell you how to do every single calculation.
 

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