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I am studying quantum field theory and i want to just to check something. We have said that the problem with klein gordon equation for real field is that is predict positive and negative energies in addition to the negative probability density. For the complex klein gordon field we have discove the antiparticle so we can said that the problem of negative energy is solved for the complex field. So why do they say that the problem of negative energy was first solved by dirac for spin 1/2 particles.

Thank you

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# Quantum field theory

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