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Quantum Interpretational Philosophy

  1. Nov 17, 2005 #1
    From the Copenhagen Interpretation we learned that the measurement disturbs the syste m in a "fuzzy" way : System=X..Measurement op.=A...End state=Y Y=Eig(A), prob(Y)=|Proj(X,Y)|^2.
    Hence after the measurement, the system is Y...
    But in my mind, the opposite way is even clearer : The system disturbs the measurement operator...It is even more indicating what a measurement process is : e.g. you put a thermometer, and the thermometer state (operator configuration some kind of, still unknown in QM)..changes...
    To recover usual spin QM, let's see this phenomenon in "classical" QM :
    the correlation of two observation in A and B is given by the defintion :
    [tex] C(A,B)=<A\otimes B>-<A\otimes\mathbb{I}><\mathbb{I}\otimes B>[/tex]
    Then it is clear that the non-averaged operator (we remember : [tex] <A>=<\Psi|A|\Psi> [/tex] is then by omitting the [tex]\textrm{\emph{exterior}}[/tex] average :
    [tex] K(A,B)=A\otimes B-(A\otimes\mathbb{I})\underbrace{|\Psi\rangle\langle\Psi|}_ {nlin-link}(\mathbb{I}\otimes B) [/tex]
    It's clear that this operator K contains a linear term and a non-linear one. THis means that the measurement operator depends on the system it measures...

    Does this make any sense ? (There is always a sense, but most of the time the one we wouldn't like, or the one we don't understand).
    Last edited: Nov 18, 2005
  2. jcsd
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