I'm doing some past papers for my QM finals and I've come across a question that is a bit strange. I'm not sure if it's as easy as it sounds.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

X and P are one dimensional position and momentum operators, which take the explicit forms of x and -ihd/dx.

i) write down the explicit forms of X^2 and P^2

now then, is this just x^2 and hd^2/dx^2?

im ok on the next few bits, but:

iv) which, if any, of the two functions exp(ikx) and exp(-ax^2) are eigenfunctions of P^2?

my guess is that, since the eigenfunction of P is exp(ikx), its the other one (and the i has disapeared in the squaring process), but how can i prove this?

Im probably just being paranoid, but can someone verify these answers?

thanks

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

# Quantum Mechanics => Operators

Know someone interested in this topic? Share a link to this question via email,
Google+,
Twitter, or
Facebook

- Similar discussions for: Quantum Mechanics => Operators

Loading...

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**