Quantum Mechanics question

  • Thread starter ynuo
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  • #1
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How does this potential:

V(x)={Inf for x<0, bx for 0<x<a, Inf for x>a}

differ from:

V(x)={Inf for x<0, bx for x>0}

with regards to Schrodinger's equation, wave functions, and the energy states.

P.S. the tex graphics are not showing when I try to post my question using tex macros. This is why I resorted to plain ascii.
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
dextercioby
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Do you know how to treat an infinite potential within the context of 1-dim SE ?
 
  • #3
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This is the part that I have trouble with. I know that if I had a constant
potential or any other type of potential, then a substitution in Schrodinger's
equation will be required. From there I will have to solve a DE. But in
the case of infinite potential I am not sure.
 
  • #4
Dick
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Saying 'infinite potential' specifies a boundary condition for the DE. Guess which one?
 
  • #5
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I think I got it. Thanks.
 

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