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Quantum Mechanics question

  1. Feb 19, 2007 #1
    How does this potential:

    V(x)={Inf for x<0, bx for 0<x<a, Inf for x>a}

    differ from:

    V(x)={Inf for x<0, bx for x>0}

    with regards to Schrodinger's equation, wave functions, and the energy states.

    P.S. the tex graphics are not showing when I try to post my question using tex macros. This is why I resorted to plain ascii.
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 19, 2007 #2


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    Do you know how to treat an infinite potential within the context of 1-dim SE ?
  4. Feb 19, 2007 #3
    This is the part that I have trouble with. I know that if I had a constant
    potential or any other type of potential, then a substitution in Schrodinger's
    equation will be required. From there I will have to solve a DE. But in
    the case of infinite potential I am not sure.
  5. Feb 19, 2007 #4


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    Saying 'infinite potential' specifies a boundary condition for the DE. Guess which one?
  6. Feb 19, 2007 #5
    I think I got it. Thanks.
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