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Quantum mechanics question

  1. Jul 24, 2010 #1
    Why is there, for a free particle no physical state, i.e, proper wave function, for a negative energy?

    Is it because k is imaginary? (k = sqrt(-2mE)/(reduced Planck's constant)
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 24, 2010 #2

    kuruman

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    Don't forget that, for a free particle, the potential energy is implicitly V = 0. Can a free particle exist in a state where its energy E is everywhere in space less than its potential energy? What does the Schrodinger equation have to say about that?
     
  4. Jul 24, 2010 #3
    Because those states are not normalizable.
     
  5. Jul 24, 2010 #4

    kuruman

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    Sure.
     
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