Let,s suppose we have the operator f(q,p) with p and q are quantum operators tehn my question is if we develop f(p,q) into a power series:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]f(q,p)=\sum_0^{\infty}a_n(q)p^{n}[/tex]

my question is if i must symmetrizy the expresion a_n(q)p^n for each member

so:

[tex]a_n(q)p^n\rightarrow[a_n(q),p^n] [/tex]

another question let be the integral of the operator x given by:

[tex]\int_0^{\infty}f(X)dx [/tex]

is this justified or it cna not be done?..thanks.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Quantum mechanics,Taylor series and integrals

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**