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I am a physics student but still a layman in QM. I got a task to explain Quantum tunneling and I did my researchs for 3 days (I have read almost all threads here regarding to the topic). I found many different interpretations but I believe the Schrodinger's Equation is the correct answer.

What I want to be helped is: How can I show that the tunneling probabilities to another side is non-zero with the equation?

And the actual "probability" is |ψ|^{2}or the coefficient |T|^{2}? sorry there were so many version of explanations, I really got confused....

Thanks

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# Quantum tunneling for dummies

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