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Question about complex analysis

  1. Feb 5, 2012 #1
    If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 5, 2012 #2

    mathwonk

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    have you tried dividing them?
     
  4. Feb 5, 2012 #3
    just figure out how to do it. just divide them and prove that the singularities must be isolated. otherwise f(z) will be constantly 0.
     
  5. Feb 5, 2012 #4

    lavinia

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    prove that the derivatives of a holomorphic function are holomorphic
     
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