If we know f(x)^2 and f(x)^3 are both holomorphic, can we say that f(x) itself is also holomorphic? And how to prove that?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Question about complex analysis

Loading...

Similar Threads for Question complex analysis |
---|

I Divergent series question |

B Function rules question |

B Question about a limit definition |

A Angular Moment Operator Vector Identity Question |

I A question regarding Logistic population model |

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**