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When we have [tex]\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0[/tex]

and we get

[tex]r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}=c_1[/tex]

To get there, did we do this

[tex]\int\frac{\partial}{\partial r}(r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r}) dr=\int 0 dr[/tex]

or

[tex]\partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=0\partial r[/tex]

[tex]\int \partial (r\frac{\partial p}{\partial r})=\int 0\partial r[/tex]

and why?

Thanks in advance

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# Question about integrating

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