- #1

- 13

- 0

[tex]

\int (\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}) dx

[/tex]

comes to be

[tex]

\tan^{-1} (x)

[/tex]

I was able to find the formula on a table of integrals, but I'd just like to know why it works like this, and why we can't use a natural log rule or a substitution method to find this out.

Thanks for reading!