Actually, I guess this is more of an automotive question but maybe someone here knows. I was wondering if when you try to find the actual torque the vehicle has after the rear end, do you use the ratio of the torque converter or do you neglect it? Example: say i have an engine with 300 ft-lbs of torque at the crankshaft, a transmission with a 3.00:1 first gear, and 3.50:1 rear end. Is the torque, when starting from a dead stop and neglecting drivetrain friction losses, after the rear end 3150 ft-lbs(1575 to each rear wheel)? Or do I need to consider the torque converter in calculating this? so if the torque converter has a ratio of 2:1, the torque would be 6300ft-lbs(3150 to each wheel)? Thanks for any help.