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Question about turbulence

  1. Jul 11, 2004 #1


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    Hey I came into a doubt in the classical physics forums, and I want to know if I said something stupid.

    Usually we employ in Fluid Mechanics the adherence condition (u=0 just on the wall, where fluid and solid meets; u=velocity field). But I'm not sure if in turbulent regimenes this keeps on being correct. Sure that boundary layer separates from the wall, or it is formed a turbulent one. Imagine a vortex near wall, do you think I can impose u=0 at the wall?
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  3. Jul 26, 2004 #2
    That statment is very convoluted.. can u clarify it?... do you need help translating.. tpye it in spanish

    Esa declaración es muy complicada.. lo puede lo clarifica? ... lo hace necesita traducir de ayuda.. lo escribe en español. I can understand it better than i can type it, but that should get the point accross
  4. Jul 27, 2004 #3


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    Sorry I missed this earlier, Clausius.

    Yes, you can still impose u=0 at the wall in a turbulent flow.
  5. Jul 27, 2004 #4


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    :rofl: My english is disappointing, but your spanish is the worst!. Anyway, Enigma seems to understand me after all. If what you are saying is true, it is certain I have said something stupid. See this thread:

  6. Jul 27, 2004 #5
    got it.. and yes my spanish is crap i know.... but u got what i meant.. like i said i understand it better than i write it
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