I don't like to delve to deep into this matter in such a way that this thread will be thrown into the philosophy forum, where I don't think it belongs.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Take a particle and consider the state space. And let's call, say, the first tree stationary states [itex]|\psi_1 \rangle, |\psi_2 \rangle, |\psi_3 \rangle[/itex].

The question is:

Is there ANY (physical) difference between saying:

"There is a 1/3 probabilty the particle is in the state [itex]|\psi_1 \rangle[/itex], a 1/6 probability it's in the state [itex]|\psi_2 \rangle[/itex] and a prob. of 1/2 that it's in the state [itex]|\psi_3 \rangle[/itex]."

and saying

"The particle is in the state

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}|\psi_1 \rangle+\frac{1}{\sqrt{6}}|\psi_2 \rangle+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}|\psi_3 \rangle[/tex]"

I'm pretty sure the answer is no, since any physical measurement will give the same predictions in both cases. Unless I missed something.

Can someone answer this question?

(Preferrably someone ho knows what he's talking about).

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Question about wavefunction prob.

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**