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Question on aristotles theory of motion

  1. Jul 11, 2004 #1
    I'm doing a report that's due soon, and it was on an experiement...my hypothesis was that distance is directly related to time...we did an experiment w/ a hall cart and incline.....I said that it proved aristotle to be incorrect....i know his theories but how should i go forth explaining...

  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 12, 2004 #2


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    explaining...what? :wink:
  4. Jul 12, 2004 #3


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    From what I am able to glean from this, the particular hypothesis from Aristotle that the experiment contadicts, is that
    "heavier objects fall faster than lighter objects due to gravity"

    Am I right about this being the hypothesis to be tested?

    If it is, the hypothesis is falsified by noting that lighter objects fall at the same rate as heavier objects (the frictional force from the incline should be proportional to the mass of the given object; hence the net acceleration should still be independent of object mass.)

    It may be however, that the hypothesis of Aristotle you were to examine, is that, in the absence of external forces, a given object will tend to come to rest (i.e, in opposition to Newton's 1.law).
    I don't see, however, how the given experiment would be a good indicator of the failure of Aristotle's experiment.

    If you're still confused, please clarify what the experiment actually measured, and which hypothesis of Aristotle that was to be falsified by it.

    Hypothesis: "Distance directly related to time":
    I don't understand this:
    Do you mean you tried to establish if the distance traveled down an incline is directly proportional to the time spent?
    (Of course, you'll find a quadratic dependence on time instead)

    I have never heard that Aristotle maintained this view!
    If you could cough up a reference which explicitly says he did, please do!
    Last edited: Jul 12, 2004
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