Question on de Broglie waves

[ben_trovato]

What is the amplitude of the wave produced by an object of resting mass m0 when it is going a velocity v? I haven't come across any information on the amplitude of de Broglie waves, and thus I assume that the amplitude of the wave is proportional to the Lorentz factor, m0/sqrt(1+v^2/c^2). Is this correct?

Thanks for your input

 

[rbj]

i don't think you can calculate the amplitude in that case.

normally, i thought in Quantum Mechanics, one solves Shrodingers Equation for $\Psi(t, x, y, z)$ resulting in a function (or set of functions) for which there remains an undetermined coefficient multiplying the whole thing. and for each value of t, one integrates $|\Psi(t, x, y, z)|^2$ over all x, y, and z, then sets the scaling constant to whatever it has to be so that that integral is 1 (meaning that the particle must exist somewhere for every point in time.