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Question on de Broglie waves

  1. May 19, 2008 #1
    What is the amplitude of the wave produced by an object of resting mass m0 when it is going a velocity v? I haven't come across any information on the amplitude of de Broglie waves, and thus I assume that the amplitude of the wave is proportional to the Lorentz factor, m0/sqrt(1+v^2/c^2). Is this correct?

    Thanks for your input
  2. jcsd
  3. May 19, 2008 #2


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    i don't think you can calculate the amplitude in that case.

    normally, i thought in Quantum Mechanics, one solves Shrodingers Equation for [itex]\Psi(t, x, y, z)[/itex] resulting in a function (or set of functions) for which there remains an undetermined coefficient multiplying the whole thing. and for each value of t, one integrates [itex]|\Psi(t, x, y, z)|^2[/itex] over all x, y, and z, then sets the scaling constant to whatever it has to be so that that integral is 1 (meaning that the particle must exist somewhere for every point in time.
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