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I have a doubt about equivariant maps in the context of group theory. In particular, if we consider an automorphism of a group G, we would havef(g.h)=f(g).f(h)

I would expectfto be also an equivariant map, but from the definition it wouldn't seem so, because one should havef(g.h)=g.f(h)

Can anyone clarify this issue?

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# Question on equivariant maps

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