- #1
mnb96
- 715
- 5
Hello,
I have a doubt about equivariant maps in the context of group theory. In particular, if we consider an automorphism of a group G, we would have f(g.h)=f(g).f(h)
I would expect f to be also an equivariant map, but from the definition it wouldn't seem so, because one should have f(g.h)=g.f(h)
Can anyone clarify this issue?
I have a doubt about equivariant maps in the context of group theory. In particular, if we consider an automorphism of a group G, we would have f(g.h)=f(g).f(h)
I would expect f to be also an equivariant map, but from the definition it wouldn't seem so, because one should have f(g.h)=g.f(h)
Can anyone clarify this issue?