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Question on steradians

  1. Jan 30, 2009 #1
    Im aware that 1 steradian = 1 radian[tex]^{2}[/tex] for a solid angle measurement.

    Is the reason why 1 steradian = 1 radian[tex]^{2}[/tex] because of the 3-D nature of a sphere ?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 30, 2009 #2

    jambaugh

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    Actually the sphere (2 dim) is the surface of the ball (3-dim) but yes.
    You can define 1 steradian as the solid angle forming one unit of area on the unit sphere,
    just like 1 radian is the angle forming one unit length on the unit circle.
     
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