- #1

wany

- 72

- 0

So suppose that a sum from 1 to n=1 has property P. Suppose further that if the sum from 1 to n has property P, then the sum from 1 to n+1 has property P also (for n greater than or equal to 1). Now will this property hold for the sum from 1 to infinity?

I know that from mathematical induction this should be true, but I am wondering does it carry out to infinity. There's just something in the back of my head telling me that for some reason this might not hold.

So I guess, I just want to get some clarification.