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Hi,

I am little bit lost in what is so called EPR paradox (see also http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EPR_paradox). It takes into account two particles A and B that have some "same" characteristics (states) and by messuring some of this characteristics of particle A implies that the same characteristic particle B has. Quantum physics says that there exist some complementary characteristics (as e.g. position and velocity) - let's call them C1 and C2 - that cannot be messured together with arbitrary precision (so called uncertainity principle). (With this come also another question - what does mean "to be measured together"?) EPR paradox operates with measuring characteristics only on one particle (say A) which I don't quite understand - when measuring C1 on A than I in fact can not meassure C2 on A with arbitrary precision (or is it false?). But I think that it would make sense to measure C1 for A and C2 for B - both with arbitrary precision. And because A and B have C1 and C2 same, that can break uncertainity principle - or not?

Thank you for answering my questions and also for explaining (or sending link) the thought of EPR paradox.

Honzik

I am little bit lost in what is so called EPR paradox (see also http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/EPR_paradox). It takes into account two particles A and B that have some "same" characteristics (states) and by messuring some of this characteristics of particle A implies that the same characteristic particle B has. Quantum physics says that there exist some complementary characteristics (as e.g. position and velocity) - let's call them C1 and C2 - that cannot be messured together with arbitrary precision (so called uncertainity principle). (With this come also another question - what does mean "to be measured together"?) EPR paradox operates with measuring characteristics only on one particle (say A) which I don't quite understand - when measuring C1 on A than I in fact can not meassure C2 on A with arbitrary precision (or is it false?). But I think that it would make sense to measure C1 for A and C2 for B - both with arbitrary precision. And because A and B have C1 and C2 same, that can break uncertainity principle - or not?

Thank you for answering my questions and also for explaining (or sending link) the thought of EPR paradox.

Honzik

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