By definition, an infinite set is a set whose subset is proportional to the set which contains it. The sequence of numbers whether it be expressed as (n+1) or not, is infinite. Then (I am veturing into grounds I know little of here...) I am guessing it is safe to say that the numbers (n+1< or = to 10 <0) or 1, 10 and 1 through 10 are subsets of the the infinite sequence of numbers. If that is true, then by the definition I stated in bold, it is also true that the numbers (n+1< or = to 10 <0) are proportional to the infinite set which contains the aforementioned numbers. Okay, I am 99.9% sure I'm wrong here mainly because I have no knowledge of set theory besides what it is, and the definition of "infinite" according to a NOVA special. In addition, I may want to highlight that I am merely a freshman in highschool so please don't make your explanations too complex for a student of geometry such as myself. I was just curious about this so I'm asking. thanx.