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Hello, I was wondering if someone could help me with a question my homework has invoked. In statistics, if a probability is greater than 1 would it just be equal to 1? The problem arose quite a few times when working with Discrete Random Variables.

For example, 80% of a 25 person survey is considered a success. The probability that more than 15 of the people will be a success is...

p(16)+p(17)+p(18)+p(19)+p(20)+p(21)+p(22)+p(23)+p(24)+p(25)

I worked this specific problem out with Minitab as instructed, and after summing the column that I stored the probabilities in it yielded 5.97511. Clearly, this seems wrong. I would think that the probability couldn't be greater than 1, or ever greater than .999999(repeating).

I also encountered the problem a few times when using the Appendix charts which we were asked to use to solve a few of the problems.

Thanks for any help.

For example, 80% of a 25 person survey is considered a success. The probability that more than 15 of the people will be a success is...

p(16)+p(17)+p(18)+p(19)+p(20)+p(21)+p(22)+p(23)+p(24)+p(25)

I worked this specific problem out with Minitab as instructed, and after summing the column that I stored the probabilities in it yielded 5.97511. Clearly, this seems wrong. I would think that the probability couldn't be greater than 1, or ever greater than .999999(repeating).

I also encountered the problem a few times when using the Appendix charts which we were asked to use to solve a few of the problems.

Thanks for any help.

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