- #1
latentcorpse
- 1,444
- 0
For a random field, [itex]f[/itex], the two point correlator is defined as
[itex]\xi(x,y)=\langle f(x) f(y) \rangle = \int \mathcal{D}f \text{Pr}[f] f(x) f(y)[/itex]
where [itex]\text{Pr}[f][/itex] is the probability of realising some field configuration.
Statistical homogeneity means that [itex]\text{Pr}[f(x)]=Pr[f(x-a)][/itex]
Apparently this means that the two point correlator satisfies [itex]\xi(x,y)=\xi(x-a,y-a) \forall a \Rightarrow \xi(x,y)=\xi(x-y)[/itex]
I do not understand that last line. Why does it suddenly just become dependent on the seperation?
Thanks.
[itex]\xi(x,y)=\langle f(x) f(y) \rangle = \int \mathcal{D}f \text{Pr}[f] f(x) f(y)[/itex]
where [itex]\text{Pr}[f][/itex] is the probability of realising some field configuration.
Statistical homogeneity means that [itex]\text{Pr}[f(x)]=Pr[f(x-a)][/itex]
Apparently this means that the two point correlator satisfies [itex]\xi(x,y)=\xi(x-a,y-a) \forall a \Rightarrow \xi(x,y)=\xi(x-y)[/itex]
I do not understand that last line. Why does it suddenly just become dependent on the seperation?
Thanks.