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Random XX spin chain in 1D

  1. Oct 11, 2015 #1
    Consider model of one dimensional spin chain with a random couplings J. The Hamiltonian is the following:

    $$ H = \sum_i J_i (S_i^x S_{i+1}^x+ S_i^y S_{i+1}^y)$$,
    Which by Jordan-Wigner transformation we can transform it to the fermionic representations.

    $$ H = \sum_i J_j/2 (c_i c_{i+1}^{\dagger}+h.c)$$.

    My question is can we solve this model exactly? (I know when the couplings J are constant we can solve this model exactly and have analytic solution. But how about when we have a random couplings)
    I appreciate any help and comment.
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 16, 2015 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
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