- 31
- 4
Hello! So let's say that you have a sequence ##a{_n}## and the limit as ##n->{\infty}## gives the finite number ##b## not equal to zero. If ##a{_n}## is known to be irrational, and ##a{_n}{_+}{_1}## can be shown to be irrational, does it follow by induction that ##b## is irrational? Is there any theorem that states something equivalent to this, or is this not true for all cases? Thank you!