My question stems form the section "How Many Modes in a Cavity?" in the following derivation of Rayleigh-Jean Law:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/quantum/rayj.html#c2"

In here, they count the number of modes as represented by volume of an eighth of a sphere. What's the mathematical justification behind using a spherical volume? Also, I understand why they divided by 8 since the n's must be positive, but aren't the n's here also supposed to be integers only?

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# I Rayleigh Counting of Modes

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