Proving Disjointness of Open Intervals in E Subset of R

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In summary, it is possible to write E as a countable union of disjoint open intervals, where some intervals may have infinite endpoints, by taking the set of all neighborhoods of the rationals of a rational radius in R, and then taking the union of all neighborhoods that intersect E. This results in a countable union of disjoint sets, as proven by Lindelof's theorem.
  • #1
mynameisfunk
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Hey guys, doing another rudin-related question. Here Goes:

Show that if E [tex]\subseteq[/tex] [tex]\Re[/tex] is open, then E can be written as an at most countable union of disjoint open intervals, i.e., E=[tex]\bigcup[/tex]n(an,bn). (It's possible that an=-[tex]\infty[/tex] bn=+[tex]\infty[/tex] for some n.)

My attempt:
Take the set of all Neighborhoods of all of the rationals of a rational radius in R to be A. Now all members of E intersect A make up E. Take the union of all of the neighborhoods in this set E intersect A and this is a countable union of disjoint sets.

Is there a problem with this?
 
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  • #2
I now realize this doesn't create a disjoint union. I had the idea of taking an arbitrarily large neighborhood of a point in E that is still a proper subset of E and then filling up the gaps on either side with more neighborhoods, always still contained in E, until I have a countably dense set of neighborhoods contained in E...

Would this do?
 
  • #3
mynameisfunk said:
Hey guys, doing another rudin-related question. Here Goes:

Show that if E [tex]\subseteq[/tex] [tex]\Re[/tex] is open, then E can be written as an at most countable union of disjoint open intervals, i.e., E=[tex]\bigcup[/tex]n(an,bn). (It's possible that an=-[tex]\infty[/tex] bn=+[tex]\infty[/tex] for some n.)

My attempt:
Take the set of all Neighborhoods of all of the rationals of a rational radius in R to be A. Now all members of E intersect A make up E. Take the union of all of the neighborhoods in this set E intersect A and this is a countable union of disjoint sets.

Is there a problem with this?

Here is my suggestion:
First let E be a union of disjoint open sets F. Then E is an open set. We know that by Lindelof there is a countable subset F' of F. However, since F is disjoint, F=F'. So F is countable.

Accurately, F is a collection of sets and E is the union of sets taken from F.

I guess that your first suggestion proves the lindelof that countable subets exist. Although they are "not disjoint", you have proven a lindelof and you can apply this property to the open set which is a union "disjoint" open sets.
 
  • #4
This is a familiar exercise/result. See e.g. here, here, and your own (!) thread here.
 

1. What is the definition of disjointness of open intervals?

The concept of disjointness refers to the idea that two intervals do not overlap or have any common points. In other words, they are completely separate from each other.

2. What does it mean for an open interval to be a subset of R?

An open interval in R (the real numbers) is a set of all numbers between two given numbers, excluding the endpoints. For example, the interval (0,5) would include all numbers between 0 and 5, but not 0 and 5 themselves.

3. How do you prove that two open intervals are disjoint?

To prove that two open intervals are disjoint, you need to show that they have no common points. This can be done by setting up an inequality and solving for the values that satisfy both intervals. If there are no such values, then the intervals are disjoint.

4. Can open intervals in R ever overlap?

No, open intervals in R cannot overlap because they are defined as excluding their endpoints. Therefore, there will always be a gap between two open intervals.

5. Why is proving disjointness of open intervals important?

Proving disjointness of open intervals is important because it allows us to accurately define and understand the relationships between different sets of numbers. It also helps in solving problems involving interval notation and inequalities.

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