So we were going over geometric series in my calc class (basic, I know), however I was intrigued by one point that the prof. made during lecture(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex] \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2} = \zeta (2)[/tex]

That's amazing (at least to me). Looking for the explanation for this, I found a bunch of stuff relating to Fourier analysis which was - unfortunately - written in vague terms. Would someone explain this proof that is accessible to a Calc II student? Thanks

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Dismiss Notice

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Reimann Zeta Function at 2

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**