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[tex] \frac{\pi^2}{6} = \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{1}{n^2} = \zeta (2)[/tex]

That's amazing (at least to me). Looking for the explanation for this, I found a bunch of stuff relating to Fourier analysis which was - unfortunately - written in vague terms. Would someone explain this proof that is accessible to a Calc II student? Thanks