- #1
latentcorpse
- 1,444
- 0
On p 51 of these notes:
http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/ho/Notes.pdf ,
I'm trying to follow the calculation [itex]\int \frac{d^dk}{(2 \pi )^d} \frac{1}{(k^2+m^2)^2}= - \frac{\partial}{\partial m^2} \dots[/itex]
It looks to me like we can just use the calculation above and then take the derivative at the end but somehow this isn't working as whilst he has lowered the power on the m^2, he hasn't multiplied through by the old power. Additionally, the argument of the Gamma function has changed!
What's going on?
http://www.damtp.cam.ac.uk/user/ho/Notes.pdf ,
I'm trying to follow the calculation [itex]\int \frac{d^dk}{(2 \pi )^d} \frac{1}{(k^2+m^2)^2}= - \frac{\partial}{\partial m^2} \dots[/itex]
It looks to me like we can just use the calculation above and then take the derivative at the end but somehow this isn't working as whilst he has lowered the power on the m^2, he hasn't multiplied through by the old power. Additionally, the argument of the Gamma function has changed!
What's going on?
Last edited by a moderator: