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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hello,

i've always believed and accepted that applying two restrictions over a set of numbers N can be done in any order. Lets consider we want to apply the restrictions R1 and R2 over the set N,

how can it be proved that the order in which we apply the restrictions does not matter for the final result?

Thanks in advance

i've always believed and accepted that applying two restrictions over a set of numbers N can be done in any order. Lets consider we want to apply the restrictions R1 and R2 over the set N,

how can it be proved that the order in which we apply the restrictions does not matter for the final result?

Thanks in advance