Hi,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

When I hear about the Riemann hypothesis, it seems like the first thing I hear about it is its importance to the distribution of prime numbers. However, looking online this seems to be a very difficult thing to explain. I understand that the Riemann Hypothesis asserts that the zeroes of the zeta function all have real part equal to 1/2, but how is this related to prime numbers? I've looked online and the explanations seem very confusing.

Thank you.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Riemann Hypothesis and Primes

Loading...

Similar Threads for Riemann Hypothesis Primes | Date |
---|---|

Riemann Hypothesis equivalence | Oct 13, 2011 |

Riemann hypothesis and number theory | Mar 2, 2011 |

The clue to the proof of Riemann hypothesis | Jan 25, 2011 |

Elliott-Halberstam conjecture and the Riemann Hypothesis | Jan 8, 2011 |

Riemann Hypothesis and Quantum Mechanics | Dec 21, 2010 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**