Hi, When I hear about the Riemann hypothesis, it seems like the first thing I hear about it is its importance to the distribution of prime numbers. However, looking online this seems to be a very difficult thing to explain. I understand that the Riemann Hypothesis asserts that the zeroes of the zeta function all have real part equal to 1/2, but how is this related to prime numbers? I've looked online and the explanations seem very confusing. Thank you.