daniel_i_l

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Can anyone tell we how this:

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannSeriesTheorem.html

can be proved?

The book that I read it in said that it was "beyond the scope of the book".

It one of the coolest theorems I've read about. For example, it means that for any number (pi, phi, ...) there's some series which converges to it.

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/RiemannSeriesTheorem.html

can be proved?

The book that I read it in said that it was "beyond the scope of the book".

It one of the coolest theorems I've read about. For example, it means that for any number (pi, phi, ...) there's some series which converges to it.