An object rolls because of friction yea? So does that mean a torque is produced when the ball is given an initial push? I mean there is a force, and the force is perpendicular to the line which connects to the center of rotation, so this would be logical yea? But if there is a torque, then there is angular acceleration, since torque = I * alpha. And an angular acceleration in pure rolling implies accelerated motion of the center of mass. The ball can't be accelerating into infinity; its ridiculous. ARgh. Help me! Any thoughts at all would be appreciated. I'm sure I went wrong somewhere.